How can strictly I prove , that if the Integral from 0 to T>0 over (C(t)/t)dt is finite...?

this implies C(t)-%26gt;0 in the limit t-%26gt;0?





In other words:





C(t) is an arbitary function of t. t is always positive. I know that





Int(C(t)/t)dt, t=0...T is finite





and want to prove C(T)-%26gt;0 for T-%26gt;0

How can strictly I prove , that if the Integral from 0 to T%26gt;0 over (C(t)/t)dt is finite...?
Express the integral as a limiting sum and then resolve the limit.
Reply:have you ever considered the fact that C(t)/t -%26gt; 0 if t-%26gt;infinity? It does. Which is why the integral is finite.